September 2011


Whose is Responsible for Fixing a Gas Leak if the Meter is Shared by Two Homes?

Summary

I’ve just discovered that my gas meter was servicing my neighbor’s utility room. The electric company told me it was my responsibility to correct it, which I’ve done. Does my neighbor have any obligation for part of the repair bill?

Dear Esq. is not intended as direct personal legal advice. For direct personal legal advice regarding your own state and situation you should consult a local attorney. → You should not and may not rely on anything on this website as legal advice.

‘I Live in Tiburon, CA. My uphill neighbor had a gas leak outside her laundry room. Pacific Gas & Electric came to the site and they confirmed that my meter has been servicing my neighbor’s utility room hot water heater for years and they turned off the gas meter that also services my home. PG&E told me it was my responsibility to have it fixed even though it was on my neighbor’s property. I did fix it and it cost me $700.00. There are no utility easements with this neighbor. What is her responsibility for this repair bill and paying me back for her using my gas meter?’

It’s not clear from your question (and you may not know) whether your neighbor did this on purpose or it was set up that way by someone else and neither of you knew about it until now.

If your neighbor was knowingly stealing your gas, you should probably talk to the police about that first. But let’s give her the benefit of the doubt and assume that she didn’t.

At a minimum, I think she should reimburse you for the reasonable value of the gas she’s been using. That may not be a large amount, depending on the size of the heater and the length of time this has been going on. As for the repair bill from PG&E, I don’t think I fully understand what it is they did, but most likely in fairness your neighbor ought to contribute something toward that.

As for the lack of easement, technically there shouldn’t be a gas pipe in there whether it’s connected or not. However, if your neighbor didn’t put it in, and it’s not in use, and it isn’t interfering with your use of the property, a court might not make your neighbor incur the cost of removing it.

Material that is on your property without permission is technically a trespass. You are certainly within your rights to remove it yourself, but a court will weigh the harm to either side before ordering the other party to incur that cost. It’s a balancing test, so it’s not a certainty that a court would rule one way or the other, and you should be aware of the uncertainty before you go to your neighbor and demand removal.

If you have–or want to have in the future–a good relationship with your neighbor, some neighborly flexibility in enforcing your legal rights in this situation is probably warranted.

Can My Boyfriend and I Get a Home Loan Even Though His Previous Marriage Hasn’t Been Officially Dissolved?

Summary

My boyfriend and I want to buy a house but have been told by a lender that, because he is still married to another woman, we won’t qualify for a loan. What can we do?

Dear Esq. is not intended as direct personal legal advice. For direct personal legal advice regarding your own state and situation you should consult a local attorney. → You should not and may not rely on anything on this website as legal advice.

‘My boyfriend and I have been together for almost two years. He is still technically married. He and his wife started a legal separation in December of 2009, however, they never finished the process (due to financial reasons). Now, we want to buy a house together, but the lender said that no one will consider giving us a loan because of the fact that he is still married according to the state of California. Is an inter-spousal agreement sufficient for his (soon-to-be) ex-wife to sign, or do they have to finish the legal separation? Help please!’

Unfortunately, these are questions that you will have to direct to the lender, because the answers aren’t legal.

Your boyfriend is married. The law recognizes only two statuses: married and unmarried, and if the divorce isn’t final then he’s married, period. You didn’t say exactly what the reason is that he didn’t finalize his divorce, but you may be in a position where you need to decide between the value of those reasons and the value of getting a mortgage.

There is no law saying that a lender has to lend money in particular circumstances (except for illegal discrimination). Lenders can and do set up–and frequently change–the criteria under which they will lend
money. For married people, particularly from a community property state such as California, it is typical for lenders to require a spouse to at least sign off on a loan, if not be an applicant.

The question of what they will accept to move the loan process forward is one that only the lender can answer. Don’t be surprised, however, if the answer is different depending on the lender. Different
lenders have different policies, though right now most lenders are much more strict than they used to be.